Bearing in mind I haven't studied employment law since..ooh 1994 this cannot be relied on as 100% accurate. Also I'm having to make some assumptions because:
What country did this take place?
What are the specifics of the contract between Party A and Party B?
Assuming UK:
1. Was the vacancy that Party B wanted to fill properly advertised and Person X considered amongst other candidates? If not Party B is possibly at fault with the law but not Party A.
2. If the contract specifically stipulates that Party B may not approach any member of staff at Party A, with regard to vacant positions. Then indeed Party A is at liberty to cease the contract (if there is provision for such action in the contract) or pursue legal proceedings for breach of contract.
Person X was perfectly at liberty to serve notice, just as Party A is at liberty to make the position redundant.
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