There was a case quite a few years back where a Sikh wanted to become a member of the RCMP. The RCMP has a strict dress code that includes a particular hat as part of the standard uniform. This hat was not compatible with the traditional turban so his application was refused. The dress code was not created to exclude Sikhs. It had been in play for many decades before he applied. Should they have allowed him to serve by modifying the dress code?
I actually just googled this case and discovered that it is inaccurate that the dress code had been in use for many decades before he applied. About a decade earlier, it was modernized to be inclusive for women. So why adapt to be inclusive to women but not extend the same courtesy for other groups the uniform was a problem for a few years later?
Additionally, the department was in specific need of Sikhs because the community that it was serving had a large Sikh population, so there was a strong advantage to getting Sikhs on the force to ease the language and cultural barriers to serve the local community more effectively. It's good that he was able to successfully lobby for change, because doing so meant a better ability for the department to serve the community with no downsides.